NCLEX-RN Practice Test – Answers & Rationales (Part 3)

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nclex practice questions

#51. Answer: D

?Rationale:?

The physician should base changes to antibiotic dosages on creatinine clearance test results, which gauge the kidney’s glomerular filtration rate; this factor is important because most drugs are excreted at least partially by the kidneys. The GI absorption rate, therapeutic index, and liver function studies don’t help determine dosage change in a client with decreased renal function.

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#52. Answer: A

Rationale: Acute glomerulonephritis is also associated with varicella zoster virus, hepatitis B, and Epstein-Barr virus. Acute renal failure is associated with hypoperfusion to the kidney, parenchymal damage to the glomeruli or tubules, and obstruction at a point distal to the kidney. Chronic renal failure may be caused by systemic disease, hereditary lesions, medications, toxic agents, infections, and medications. Nephrotic syndrome is caused by disorders such as chronic glomerulonephritis, systemic lupus erythematosus, multiple myeloma, and renal vein thrombosis.

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#53. Answer: A

Rationale: ARF, characterized by abrupt loss of kidney function, commonly causes oliguria, which is characterized by a urine output of 250 ml/24 hours. A serum creatinine level of 1.2 mg/dl isn’t diagnostic of ARF. A BUN level of 22 mg/dl or a temperature of 100.2° F (37.8° C) wouldn’t result from this disorder.

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#54. Answer: D

Rationale: In clients with renal disease, the serum creatinine level would be increased. The BUN also would be increased, serum albumin would be decreased, and potassium would likely be increased.

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#55. Answer: A

Rationale: Anticholinergic agents are considered first-line medications for urge incontinence. Estrogen decreases obstruction to urine flow by restoring the mucosal, vascular, and muscular integrity of the urethra. Tricyclic antidepressants decrease bladder contractions as well as increase bladder neck resistance. Stress incontinence may be treated using pseudoephedrine and phenylpropanolamine, ingredients found in over-the-counter decongestants.

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#56. Answer: D

Rationale: Stress incontinence is due to decreased pelvic muscle tone, which is associated with multiple pregnancies, obstetric injuries, obesity, menopause, or pelvic disease. Transient incontinence is due to increased urine production related to metabolic conditions. Urge incontinence is due to bladder irritation related to urinary tract infections, bladder tumors, radiation therapy, enlarged prostate, or neurologic dysfunction. Overflow incontinence is due to obstruction from fecal impaction or enlarged prostate.

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#57. Answer: A

Rationale: The drop in urine output to less than 30 ml/hour is abnormal and requires further assessment. The reduction in urine output may be caused by an obstruction in the urinary catheter tubing or deficient fluid volume from blood loss. The client’s nothing-by-mouth status isn’t the cause of the low urine output because the client is receiving I.V. fluid to compensate for the lack of oral intake. Ambulation promotes urination; however, the client should produce at least 30 ml of urine/hour.

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#58. Answer: D

Rationale:?An ileal conduit is a non-continent urinary diversion whereby the ureters drain into an isolated section of ileum. A stoma is created at one end of the ileum, exiting through the abdominal wall.

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#59. Answer: B

Rationale: Strategies for preventing urinary tract infection include proper perineal hygiene, increased fluid intake, avoiding urinary tract irritants (including caffeine), and establishing a frequent voiding regimen.

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#60. Answer: B

Rationale: The most common objective finding is a change in cognitive functioning, especially in those with dementia, because these patients usually exhibit even more profound cognitive changes with the onset of a UTI. Incontinence, hematuria, and back pain are not the most common presenting objective symptoms.

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#61. Answer: D

Rationale: Patients diagnosed with a UTI should drink liberal amounts of fluids. They should void every 2 to 3 hours. Coffee and tea are urinary irritants. The patient should shower instead of bathe in a tub because bacteria in the bath water may enter the urethra.

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#62. Answer: C

Rationale: Permanent drainage with a urethral catheter carries the greatest risk. It may also increase the risk for bladder stones, renal diseases, bladder infections, and urosepsis, a severe systemic infection by microorganisms in the urinary tract invading the bloodstream. Clean intermittent catheterization has the fewest complications and is the preferred treatment for urinary retention. The Credé voiding procedure is used in the case of clients who have lost control over their nervous systems, secondary to injury or disease.

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#63. Answer: C

Rationale: Phenazopyridine (Pyridium) is a urinary analgesic agent used for the treatment of burning and pain associated with UTIs.

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#64. Answer: A

Rationale: Measures to prevent cystitis include voiding after sexual intercourse, wearing cotton underwear, urinating every 2 to 3 hours while awake, and taking showers instead of tub baths.

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#65. Answer: C

Rationale: Factors that contribute to urinary tract infection in older adults include immunocompromise, high incidence of chronic illness, immobility, and frequent use of antimicrobial agents.

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#66. Answer: B

Rationale: The most common fluid imbalance in older adults is dehydration. Because of reduced thirst sensation that often accompanies aging, older adults tend to drink less water. Use of diuretic medications, laxatives, or enemas may also deplete fluid volume in older adults. Chronic fluid volume deficit can lead to other problems such as electrolyte imbalances. Therefore, options A, C, and D are incorrect.

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#67. Answer: C

Rationale: A client with pneumonia may hyperventilate in an effort to increase oxygen intake. Hyperventilation leads to excess carbon dioxide (CO2) loss, which causes alkalosis — indicated by this client’s elevated pH value. With respiratory alkalosis, the kidneys’ bicarbonate (HCO3-) response is delayed, so the client’s HCO3- level remains normal. The below-normal value for the partial pressure of arterial carbon dioxide (PaCO2) indicates CO2 loss and signals a respiratory component. Because the HCO3- level is normal, this imbalance has no metabolic component. Therefore, the client is experiencing respiratory alkalosis.

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#68. Answer: D

Rationale: Treatment of severe hypokalemia requires treatment with IV infusion of potassium. Clients may experience burning along the vein with IV infusion of potassium in proportion to the infusion’s concentration. If the client can tolerate the fluid, consult with the physician about diluting the potassium in a larger volume of IV solution. Oral potassium may not be enough in severe cases hypokalemia. Hypokalemia requires treatment with potassium and not any other electrolyte.

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#69. Answer: C

Rationale: The serum calcium level is controlled by PTH and calcitonin. The thyroid hormone, adrenal gland, or androgens do not regulate the calcium level in the blood.

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#70. Answer: B

Rationale: This client’s pH value is below normal, indicating acidosis. The HCO3- value also is below normal, reflecting an overwhelming accumulation of acids or excessive loss of base, which suggests metabolic acidosis. The PaCO2 value is normal, indicating absence of respiratory compensation. These ABG values eliminate respiratory alkalosis, respiratory acidosis, and metabolic alkalosis.

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#71. Answer: B

Rationale: Fluid volume deficit, or hypovolemia, occurs when the loss of extracellular fluid exceeds the intake of fluid. Clinical signs include oliguia, rapid heart rate, vasoconstriction, cool and clammy skin, and muscle weakness. The nurse monitors for rapid, weak pulse and orthostatic hypotension.

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#72. Answer: B

Rationale: Respiratory alkalosis results from alveolar hyperventilation. It’s marked by a decrease in PaCO2 to less than 35 mm Hg and an increase in blood pH over 7.45. Metabolic acidosis is marked by a decrease in HCO3? to less than 22 mEq/L, and a decrease in blood pH to less than 7.35. In respiratory acidosis, the pH is less than 7.35 and the PaCO2 is greater than 45 mm Hg. In metabolic alkalosis, the HCO3? is greater than 26 mEq/L and the pH is greater than 7.45.

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#73. Answer: C

Rationale: The client with respiratory alkalosis may complain of light-headedness or paresthesia (numbness and tingling in the arms and legs). Nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, and diarrhea may accompany respiratory acidosis. Hallucinations and tinnitus rarely are associated with respiratory alkalosis or any other acid-base imbalance.

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#74. Answer: A

Rationale: Although changes in all these findings are seen in hyperkalemia, ECG results should take priority because changes can indicate potentially lethal arrhythmias such as ventricular fibrillation. It wouldn’t be appropriate to assess the client’s neuromuscular function, bowel sounds, or respiratory rate for effects of hyperkalemia.

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#75. Answer: C

Rationale: Administering regular insulin I.V. concomitantly with 50 ml of dextrose 50% helps shift potassium from the extracellular fluid into the cell, which normalizes serum potassium levels in the client with hyperkalemia. This combination doesn’t help reverse the effects of hypercalcemia, hypernatremia, or hyperglycemia.

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#76. Answer: C

Rationale: A pH over 7.45 with a HCO3- level over 26 mEq/L indicates metabolic alkalosis. Metabolic alkalosis is always secondary to an underlying cause and is marked by decreased amounts of acid or increased amounts of base HCO3-. The client isn’t experiencing respiratory alkalosis because the PaCO2 is normal. The client isn’t experiencing respiratory or metabolic acidosis because the pH is greater than 7.35.

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#77. Answer: D

Rationale: The management goal in hypervolemia is to reduce fluid volume. For this reason, fluid is rationed, and the client is advised to take limited amount of fluid when thirsty. Sweet or dry food can increase the client’s desire to consume fluid. Sweet or dry food does not obstruct water elimination nor does it cause dehydration. Weight regulation is not part of hypervolemia management except to the extent that it is achieved on account of fluid reduction.

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#78. Answer: B

Rationale: The major chemical regulator of plasma pH is the bicarbonate-carbonic acid buffer system. Therefore options A and C are incorrect. Option D does not exist, it is only a distractor for this question.

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#79. Answer: A

Rationale: In respiratory acidosis, ABG analysis reveals an arterial pH below 7.35 and partial pressure of arterial carbon dioxide (PaCO2) above 45 mm Hg. Therefore, the combination of a pH value of 7.25 and a PaCO2 value of 50 mm Hg confirms respiratory acidosis. A pH value of 7.5 with a PaCO2 value of 30 mm Hg indicates respiratory alkalosis. A ph value of 7.40 with a PaCO2 value of 35 mm Hg and a pH value of 7.35 with a PaCO2 value of 40 mm Hg represent normal ABG values, reflecting normal gas exchange in the lungs.

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#80. Answer: A

Rationale: This client’s serum calcium level indicates hypocalcemia, an electrolyte imbalance that causes Trousseau’s sign (carpopedal spasm induced by inflating the blood pressure cuff above systolic pressure). Homans’ sign (pain on dorsiflexion of the foot) indicates deep vein thrombosis. Hegar’s sign (softening of the uterine isthmus) and Goodell’s sign (cervical softening) are probable signs of pregnancy.

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#81. Answer: D

Rationale: The normal reference range for serum calcium is 9 to 11 mg/dl. A serum calcium level of 12 mg/dl clearly indicates hypercalcemia. The client’s other laboratory findings are within their normal ranges, so the client doesn’t have hypernatremia, hypochloremia, or hypokalemia.

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#82. Answer: A

Rationale: Poor respiratory exchange as the result of chronic lung disease, inactivity, or thoracic skeletal changes may lead to chronic respiratory acidosis. Decreased renal function in older adults can cause an inability to concentrate urine and is usually associated with fluid and electrolyte imbalance. A poor appetite, erratic meal patterns, inability to prepare nutritious meals, or financial circumstances may influence nutritional status, resulting in imbalances of electrolytes. Overuse of sodium bicarbonate may lead to metabolic alkalosis.

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#83. Answer: D

Rationale: Respiratory acidosis is associated with hypoventilation; in this client, hypoventilation suggests intake of a drug that has suppressed the brain’s respiratory center. Therefore, the nurse should assume the client has respiratory depression and should prepare to assist with ventilation. After the client’s respiratory function has been stabilized, the nurse can safely monitor the heart rhythm, prepare for gastric lavage, and obtain a urine specimen for drug screening.

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#84. Answer: A

Rationale: Hypervolemia, or fluid volume excess (FVE), refers to an isotonic expansion of the extracellular fluid. Nursing interventions for FVE include measuring intake and output, monitoring weight, assessing breath sounds, monitoring edema, and promoting rest. The most important intervention in the list involves monitoring the respiratory status for any signs of pulmonary congestion. Breath sounds are assessed at regular intervals.

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#85. Answer: C

Rationale: Third-spacing describes the translocation of fluid from the intravascular or intercellular space to tissue compartments, where it becomes trapped and useless. The client manifests signs and symptoms of hypovolemia with the exception of weight loss. There may be signs of localized enlargement of organ cavities (such as the abdomen) if they fill with fluid, a condition referred to as ascites.

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#86. Answer: B

Rationale: Tachypnea or rapid breathing may result from various reasons including acute anxiety, high fever, thyrotoxicosis, early salicylate poisoning, hypoxemia, or mechanical ventilation. The rapid breathing expels more CO2 than necessary. This causes a deficit in carbonic acid, leading to respiratory alkalosis. Circumoral paresthesia is one of the symptoms. The first course of action is to detect and treat the cause of tachypnea. The nurse has to maintain mechanical ventilation if the client is dependent on it. CPR administration is required only if the client’s condition needs it. Aspirin is not advised as early aspirin poisoning may be a cause of the tachypnea.

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#87. Answer: B

Rationale: The symptoms and the high level of serum sodium suggest hypernatremia, (excess of sodium). It is necessary to restrict sodium intake. Salt tablets and sodium chloride IV can only worsen this condition but may be required in hyponatremia (sodium deficit). Hypotonic solution IV may be a part of the treatment but not along with the salt tablets.

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#88. Answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should identify potassium: 2.2 mEq/L as critical because a normal potassium level is 3.8 to 5.5 mEq/L. Severe hypokalemia can cause cardiac and respiratory arrest, possibly leading to death. Hypokalemia also depresses the release of insulin and results in glucose intolerance. The glucose level is above normal (normal is 75 to 110 mg/dl) and the chloride level is a bit low (normal is 100 to 110 mEq/L). Although these levels should be reported, neither is life-threatening. The BUN (normal is 8 to 26 mg/dl) and creatinine (normal is 0.8 to 1.4 mg/dl) are within normal range.

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#89. Answer: A

Rationale: Urinary retention and urinary incontinence are voiding dysfunctions, temporary or permanent alterations in the ability to urinate normally. Cystitis is an infectious disorder. Bladder stones and urethral stricture are obstructive disorders.

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#90. Answer: A

Rationale: The diuretic phase of acute renal failure is characterized by increased urine output, hypotension, and dehydration.

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#91. Answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should advise the client to wear a mask while performing exchanges. This prevents contamination of the dialysis catheter and tubing, and is usually advised to clients with upper respiratory infection. Auscultation of the lungs will not prevent contamination of the catheter or tubing. The client may also be advised to perform deep-breathing exercises to promote optimal lung expansion, but this will not prevent contamination. Clients with a fistula or graft in the arm should be advised against carrying heavy items.

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#92. Answer: A

Rationale: A renal angiogram (renal arteriogram) provides details of the arterial supply to the kidneys, specifically the location and number of renal arteries (multiple vessels to the kidney are not unusual) and the patency of each renal artery.

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#93. Answer: B

Rationale: It is important to inquire about drugs because some drugs may affect the outcome of urinary tract tests as well as the color and odor of the urine. Dietary intake may affect urine characteristics as well as urinary tract disorders and their management. Drugs do not directly affect the size of the urinary bladder or the amount of urine produced.

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#94. Answer: B

Rationale: Excess fluid intake results in low specific gravity of urine. Excessive fluid intake will result in formation of dilute urine. When the urine is diluted, it results in low specific gravity of urine. Frequent vomiting, repeated diarrhea, and urine retention will result in high specific gravity of urine.

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#95. Answer: C

Rationale: Muscle weakness, bradycardia, nausea, diarrhea, and paresthesia of the hands, feet, tongue, and face are findings associated with hyperkalemia, which is transient and results from transient hypoaldosteronism when the adenoma is removed. Tremors, diaphoresis, and constipation aren’t seen in hyperkalemia.

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#96. Answer: C

Rationale: Angiography provides the details of the arterial supply to the kidneys, specifically the number and location of renal arteries. Radiography shows the size and position of the kidneys, ureters, and bladder. A CT scan is useful in identifying calculi, congenital abnormalities, obstruction, infections, and polycystic diseases. Cystoscopy is used for providing a visual examination of the internal bladder.

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#97. Answer: D

Rationale: Hypertension, not hypotension, is a risk factor for kidney disease.

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#98. Answer: A

Rationale: Pyelonephritis is an upper urinary tract inflammation, which may be acute or chronic. Cystitis is inflammation of the urinary bladder. Urethritis is inflammation of the urethra. Interstitial nephritis is inflammation of the kidney.

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#99. Answer: B

Rationale: The left kidney usually is slightly higher than the right one. An adrenal gland lies atop each kidney. The average kidney measures approximately 11 cm (4??) long, 5 to 5.8 cm (2? to 2??) wide, and 2.5 cm (1?) thick. The kidneys are located retroperitoneally, in the posterior aspect of the abdomen, on either side of the vertebral column. They lie between the 12th thoracic and 3rd lumbar vertebrae.

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#100. Answer: A

Rationale: Renin is released in resonse to decreased B/P, renal ischemia, eosinophil chemotactic factor (ECF) depletion, and other factors affecting blood suppy to the kidney. It is they catalyst of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system, which raises B/P when stimulated. ADH is secreted by the posterior pituitary in response to serum hyperosmolality and low blood volume. Aldosterone is secreted within the renin-angiotensin II, and kidney prostaglandins lower B/P by causing vasodilation.

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